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Andy Alexander

Hey Tom, Andy again.

Are you planning on starting a new career as an appraiser? Because the adoption of replacement cost accounting would place some major new administrative burdens on companies. Appraisers would be in high demand.

Michael

I've seen you espouse replacement cost on multiple occasions but am having trouble determining what the real difference is between exit price under FAS 157 and your view of replacement cost. If I try to determine what the exit price would be for a given asset, am I not implying what the entry price for a buyer of that asset would be?...i.e. one's exit price is another's entry price, which I would view to be the replacement cost. For an untraded mortgage backed security, I can't look to quoted prices to determine what the asset would cost me to replace it today, so I estimate the cash flows and apply a discount rate using a market participant's persepctive. This is how a purchaser would determine what the asset would cost them today, but it's also the principles that a holder of the asset would think about as well under FAS 157.

Tom Selling

Hi, Michael:

That’s a fair question you ask. For financial assets, the difference between exit value and entry/replacement cost is captured conceptually by the bid-ask spread. 'Ask' is replacement cost, and replacement cost will also 'capitalize' whatever additional acquisition costs you may have to incur.

For non-financial assets, the replacement cost may be a ask price, or it may be a combination of asking prices for various components that when you add them up is less than yjr asking price for the whole thing from a dealer or another manufacturer. The example I think about most is inventory for resale. A manufacturer’s lowest replacement cost would be its out-of-pocket costs to manufacture a new one.

I am not claiming that replacement cost would solve the lack of an active market problem for all financial assets. I agree with you that for debt securities that don’t trade at all, you may still be able to apply some kind of DCF model, but a mid-market price is not the answer. I think the model should take into account bid-ask spreads of roughly similar securities that do trade, and these could be very large.

What I am claiming, however, is that replacement cost measurement should be the stated objective, even if some measures of replacement cost are more reliable than others. I want to measure all assets on the same basis (because it is simply wrong to add apples and oranges), and the only common basis that works for both financial and non-financial assets is replacement cost.

Thanks for writing, and I hope this helps.

Best,
Tom

Kathryn P. O'Mara

Getting back to the topic of financial assets, I'm not sure that ask prices (replacement cost) are any more objective than bid prices, even in active markets. In an active market, a bid-ask spread reflects the dealer profit margin, but that margin also includes the risk premium that the asset will deteriorate in the time that it takes the dealer to sell the asset. I think that's where IFRS' insistence of a bid price for assets and and ask price for liabilities was a bit more fundamentally sound. However, since bid-ask spreads are usually tight in active markets, the whole fair value vs. replacement cost is mostly academic at that point.

Returning to the inactive markets, I'm even less convinced that "replacement cost" is a sound objective. Aren't the revisions to FAS 157 essentially allowing banks to write assets to their "ask" prices ("intrinsic" value taking only credit losses to the P&L)?

Maybe the issue isn't that fair value is fundamentally unsound. Perhaps people just don't like the answers that fair value gives them. If "everyone" is convinced that their own "toxic assets" are undervalued, then why isn't anyone buying them? Perhaps the banks are a bit more objective when looking at others' portfolios than they are when looking at their own?

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